Help please.

[gillsfan1066]

Watching the Arsenal game ,at around the 15 minute mark Monaco had a free kick from the right side, kick taken, whistle blows seconds after the kick was taken offside against a Monaco player.
OK how can this be, I was always under the impression that you could NOT be offside when a free kick was taken. ?
Last weekend watching one of the games and I am afraid I can not think which game it was but possibly the Spurs / West Ham game, Spurs first goal was scored when a free kick was taken, from the right side, outside the box ,Spurs player standing right in front of the keeper does "matador move" pulling his body in, completely blind sides the keeper, way offside but it's a GOAL for Spurs making it 1-2, for WHU.
I just don't understand how two almost identical situations can be called exactly the opposite.

[Elgrande]

You can be offside from a free kick, but not a throw in. If he didn't touch the ball he might have got away with it because he wasn't "active".

[CadburyMan]

Elg is entirely correct - though I do remember an experiment back in the late 1980s in the Conference where there was no offside from a free-kick in your own half of the pitch - does anybody else remember this ?

[Garawa]

The whole rules about being active has made the whole thing too subjective. Now it's a matter of opinion and we have controversial goals again. We should revert it back so that if you are ahead of the last defender when you receive the ball it is offside regardless of where you are on the pitch (excluding own half of course).